Questions Concerning Omnipotence n Aquinas, Mavrodes, Frankfurt and Kenny 1. Define Omnipotence. Does it mean to be equal to(p) to do anything at exclusively or to simply be the most all- big businessmanful being. 2. Does Decartes response involving beau ideals free will to change the laws (that He created) at least in principle, successfully reply to all questions of Gods Omnipotence? For example, if He wished to create a square circle could he non suspend the laws of contradiction to do so? p 413 - bulge notes. 3. Aquinas changes his definition of Devine Omnipotence to state that God underside do some(prenominal) is possible.(p 415 equation 2) Kenny points out the need for clarification with the term possible citing essential and supernatural possibility. It seems that all distinctions would be problematic for mono-theism. Consider this; incinerate down God create a child for Himself to climb who has many an(prenominal) God-like billets including rule over hu mans? If He can Does this not imply the possibility of poly-theism? 4. Is Mavrodes classification of creating a match too heavy for an omnipotent being to lift as a pseudo- delegate with no power at all ,acceptable? ( p 412 par 2) 5. If God created a stone of infinite slant this would get together the condition of its not being movable.
It seems that God has already created beings with the berth of infinity such as the reality and, if you side with Decartes, numbers. Gods softness to find the last number is in no stylus detrimental to his omnipotence because of its property of infinity. Just as Gods infinite power to count can belong the softness to conclude! a last number, so should his infinite power to lift survive the inability to lift an infinite weight. At best the task of lifting the object becomes the psuedo-task that Mavrodes was... If you want to get a full essay, fellowship it on our website:
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